4 ĐỀ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH:

 BẮC NINH, THỪA THIÊN HUẾ, VŨNG TÀU

 

 

UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

SỞ GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

Năm học 2009-2010

MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề);

Ngày thi: 09/07/2009

     A.  PHONETICS (10 POINTS)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differentlyfrom the others in each group.  (5 points)

  1. A. climate                         B. comic                     C. hike                        D. website
  2. A. worked             B. laughed                  C. hoped                     D. naked
  3. A. cover                         B. category               C. ancient                       D. decorate
  4. A. erupt                          B. humor                  C. UFO                D. communicate
  5. A. Buddhish                   B. bomb                   C. viable               D. bulb

II. Choose the word ( A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)

1. A. comprise                     B. depend                 C. design                        D. novel

2. A. tropical                       B. collection             C. tendency                   D. charity

3. A. friendliness                 B. occasion               C. pagoda                      D. deposit

4. A. importing                    B. specific                C . impolite                   D. important

5. A. federation                    B. unpolluted           C. disappearing        D. profitable

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)

 

I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)

1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?

A. Can you pass the sugar please?             B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.

C. The apples are good for you.                D. I love the skiing.

2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.

A. for                    B. since                        C. in                                D. about

3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.

A. from                 B. than                         C. to                                 D. or

4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.

A. won’t make      B. don’t make              C. wouldn’t make            D. didn’t make

5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.

A. goes                  B. was going                C. went                           D. has gone

6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.

A. we are followed                                     B. we are being followed

C. we are being following                          D. we are following

7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?

A. You should get a hair- cut.                     B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.

C. You ought to get a hair- cut.                   D. You really must get a hair- cut.

8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary?

A. Will                    B. Do                           C. Can                            D. Did

9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.

A. that                     B. whose                      C. Who                           D. whom

10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.

A. get rid of            B. got rid of                  C. got rid                       D. getting rid of

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 points)

1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.

2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.

3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet yesterday?

4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.

5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.

III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points)

 

1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)

2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)

3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)

4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of_____. ( pollute)

5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. ( collect)

6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)

7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they sell. (cry)

8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)

9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)

10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)

IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)

1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.

A                                         B           C                 D

2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.

A                                                                         B      C        D

3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for

A                                                                                                                       B

students to practice speaking words.

C                   D

4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.

A       B                       C                D

5. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that he work as fastly as possible.

A    B            C             D

            C. READING  (30 POINTS)

I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)

                                                BENJAMIN FRANKLIN

Few people can embody the spirit of earlyAmericaas much as Benjamin Franklin. He lived through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and dying ten years before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from tiny settlements into a nation, and he also contributed much to the development of the new state.

At the age of 17Franklinran away toPhiladelphia. He had already received some training as a printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first publication, the Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government printing work, which helped him to rise from his poor background to become a successful entrepreneur. Some of his experience in business was shared in his famous Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his reputation throughout the American colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which was written toward the end of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.

He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with electricity and lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also interested in improving the conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number of projects in his nativePhiladelphia, including the setting up of a library, a university, a philosophical society, and–because he was a pragmatic man–a fire prevention service. In 1753 he became Postmaster–General of the colonies. Through this experience he began to develop the idea that the colonies ofNorth Americashould be a single nation. Later, he went toLondonto try to persuade the British government to change the conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American colonists into rebellion.

Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American states, he worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador toFrance, he encouraged the French to help George Washington. After the war he attended the American constitutional congress. This was his last contribution, for he died later that year. He is still fondly remembered by Americans as one of the creators of theUnited States.

1. What is a good description for this text?

A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin.   B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.

C. The works of Benjamin Franklin.               D.Franklinand AmericanIndependence.

2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?

A. 1806                          B. 1794                    C. 1717                           D. 1706

3. Which of these happened first?

A. Franklin trains as a painter.                       B. Franklin runs away toPhiladelphia.

C. the American colonies rebel                      D. Franklin starts his first publication.

4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?

A. Franklin’s reputation.                                B. How to succeed in business.

C. how to do government printing.                D. The text does not say.

5. In which countries did Franklin live?

A.EnglandandFrance.                                   B.PhiladelphiaandEngland.

C.LondonandAmerica.                                 D.England,AmericaandFrance.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)

 

SAVING THE TIGER.

In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and __(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a campaign __(3)___ save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into a desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there ____(7)__ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back to nature.

Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to hide in, and There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many ___(12)____ deer and monkeys than before. The people __(13)__ were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new villages away __(14)___ the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer.

D. WRITING (25 POINTS)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)

1. You should review your lessons for the exam.

It’s time____________________________________________________________

2.That man used to work with me when I lived inNew York.

That’s ____________________________________________________________

3.What a pity they close the shops at lunch- time.

I wished ____________________________________________________________

4. We like ice- cream but we don’t have it every day.

Although ___________________________________________________________

5.When did you start working in that factory?

How long ___________________________________________________________

  1. Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach.

The sand ___________________________________________________________

7. “ Where’ s the station car- park?” Mrs. Smith asked.

Mrs. Smith asked ____________________________________________________

8. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.

He regretted _________________________________________________________               9. I advise you not to buy that car.

If _________________________________________________________________               10. Why don’t you ask her yourself?

I suggest that _______________________________________________________

II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points)

  1. If you/ not go/ the party/ I / go/ either.
  2. Unless/  I/ have/ quiet room/ I/ not/ able/ do/ work.
  3. nurse/ kind enough/ help him/ walk.
  4. He/ rather spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.
  5. I/ return/ visit/Japan. It/ wonderful trip.

THE END

ề thi gồm 04 trang)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………….. Số báo danh: ……………..

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Đáp án chuyên 10 (2009-2010)

 

  1. A.     PHONETICS(10pts)

I. Choose the word in each that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others in each group.(5pts) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B

 

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.(5pts)

( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D
  1. B.    VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR(35pts)

 

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B

I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.(10pt)s( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

 

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10pts)

(( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

  1. made -  to pay                               3. came – was rolling
  2. had he taken – rang                       4. will be – writes                        5. being asked – to wait

 

III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence.(10pts)

( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ, nếu viết đượcc từ nhưng thiếu “s” thì từ đó vẫn không được tính điểm)

1. imagination 2. products 3. uneconomical

uneconomic4. pollution5. collections6. Deforestation7. Criers8. consumption9. disappearance

re – appearance10. upbringing

 

IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten.(5pt) (mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C

 

            C. READING  (30PTS)

I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer.(15pts) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 3đ)

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0)    (15pts) (( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

1. the 2.  up 3. to 4.so 5. that/which
6. since/as/ because/for 7. were 8. might/could 9. enough 10. least
11. in 12. more 13. who/ that 14. from 15. a
  1. C.    WRITING (25pts)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase.(20pts( mỗi câu viết đúng được 2đ)

  1. (It’s time) you reviewed your lessons for the exam.
  2. (That’s) the man who used to work with me when I lived inNew York.
  3. (I wish) they would open the shops at lunch time/ Or. (I wished) they wouldn’t close the shops at lunch time.
  4. (Although) we like ice- cream, we don’t have it everyday.
  5. (How long) have you been working in that factory?
  6. ( The sand) of the beach was being slowly covered by oil.
  7. ( Mrs. Smith asked) (me) where the station car-park was.
  8. (He regretted) not saying/ having said goodbye to her at the airport.
  9. (If I) were you, I wouldn’t by that car.
  10. (I suggest that) you (should) ask her yourself.

 

II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

  1. If you don’t go to the party, I won’t go either.
  2. Unless I have a quiet room, I will not/ won’t be able to do my homework/ any work.
  3. The nurse is /was kind enough to help him (to) walk.
  4. He would rather spend his holidays on a farm than at the seaside.
  5. I have (just) returned from a visit toJapan. It was a wonderful trip.

                Tổng số điểm 100.

Sau khi chấm giám khảo quy về thang điểm 10.

Cách làm tròn điểm; ( ví dụ)                   7,1  7,0

7,2; 7,3  7,25

7,4; 7,6  7,5

7,7; 7,8  7,75

7,9  8,0

 

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

     THỪA THIÊN HUẾ                                     MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2007-2008                                                                       

      ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC                                                   Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút

                                                      (Đề thi gồm có 6 trang – Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi này)

———————————————————————————————————————————–

Tổng điểm:

Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

Mã phách:

I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY ( 35 points)

            Part 1: Choose the best answer among A,B,C or D. (15 points)

1. My mother used to ………. research in this library when she was a student.

A. make                       B. do                            C. making                                 D. doing

2. Let’s go to the beach this weekend,  ………… ?

A shall we                    B. do we                      C. don’t we                              D. will we

3. I wish he ……….. that.

A. doesn’t say              B. didn’t say                 C. hasn’t said                           D. hadn’t said

4. My father has gone away. He’ll be back ……… a week.

A. for                           B. at                             C. until             D. in

5. Don’t do this all at once; Do it little ……………….. little.

A. by                            B. to                             C. from                                    D. with

6. They are both good …………. because they type carefully.

A. typewriters               B. typists                      C. typers                                  D. typemen

7. We didn’t ……………to the station in time to catch the train.

A. get                           B. reach                       C. arrive                                   D. approach

8. I don’t think that purple shirt  ………….. with your yellow skirt.

A. suits             B. fits                           C. goes                                    D. wears

9. We had to stop for gasoline at a filling …………… .

A. garage                     B. service                     C. station                                  D. pump

10. ……………. you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.

A. If                             B. Although                  C. Despite                                D. Unless

11. He ordered them …….. it again.

A. don’t do                  B. not do                      C. not to do                              D. didn’t do

12. Quite soon, the world is going to …………………. energy resources.

A. run out of                 B. get into                     C. keep up with                        D. come up again

13. We decided not to go camping because of the ………rain.

A. great                        B. strong                      C. heavy                                   D. extra

14. Mary works at a supermarket. She ………. $ 5 an hour.

A. pays                        B. brings                       C. takes                                   D. earns

15. The students have got  ……….. news about their exams.

A. many                       B. some                        C. few                                      D. a few

Part 2: Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tense or form. (10 points)

1. Quang …………………………………..  (talk) to another student when I ……………………………..  (see)    him today.

2. That proposal   ………………………………….( consider) by the members right now.

3. Less than half of the cans of paint   ………………………………..(use) up to now.

4. A: I  …………………………… (lose) my glasses. I can’t find them anywhere. I  ……………………………  (look for) them for hours.

B: Don’t worry. I  ……………………………(do) the same thing the other week but I ……………………..    (find) them a few days later.

5. He is working tomorrow. If he   ……………………………(have) a day off tomorrow, he ………………..

(go) to the beach.

.           Part 3: Correct the words in bold. (10 points)

            Ex: Jane did a lot of mistakes in her composition.                                                                …..made…………

1. I’m afraid you’ve lost your test. You only got 23%.                                               ……………………

2. Congratulations! You’ve gained first prize in the competitions!                   ……………………

3. I’ve asked everyone where Jane is, but none can tell me.                           ……………………

4. I’m a bit short of cash. Can you borrow me some until tomorrow?              ……………………

5. Gills has got a good job and wins a good salary.                                        ……………………

6. Do you mind if I make a photograph of you?                                                         ……………………

7. Our school is nearby to the town centre.                                                   ……………………

8. It’s so peaceful living in the nature away from the city.                                           ……………………

9. I feel asleep. Do you mind if I go to bed?                                                  ……………………

10. My mother tried to avoid me from going to the club.                                       .…………………..

.

II. READING COMPREHENSION ( 35 points)

Part 1: Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text. (10 points)

                             retire, promote, redundant, interview, contract, reference,

                                      pensioner, applicant, career, train, employment

ADVICE TO YOUNG PEOPLE ABOUT TO START WORK

In these days of high (0) unemployment, it is often difficult for young people to find a job. If they are lucky enough to be asked to go for a(n) (1)…………………….………… , they may find that there are at least 20 other (2) ………………………..……for the job. If a company is thinking of offering you a job, they will ask you for at least one (3) ………………………….……from either your previous employer or someone who knows you well. Before taking up your job, you may have to sign a (4) …………………………. You will probably have to do some (5) ………………………… , which help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided that this is your chosen (6)…………………………, you will then have to work hard to try and get (7) …………………………, which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may be made (8)…………………………, and not be able to find another job. It is also a good idea to pay some money into a (9) …………………………scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family when you are (10) …………………………. Finally, good luck!

Part 2: Read the passage below and choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D (10 points)

GREEK THEATRES

The word theatre comes from Greek and literally means seeing place. The theatre has been popular in ancient times. People did not go to the theatre simply to see an interesting ……..(1)…….. for the plays formed part of religious festivals. ……..(2)…….. early Greek theatres consisted of no more than a flat space with an altar at the foot of a hillside. ……..(3)…….. that time, there were no……..(4)…….. as there are in modern theatres, so the ……..(5)…….. stood or sat on the slopes of the hillside. Gradually, special theatres were made by building large stone or wooden steps one ……..(6)…….. another up the hillside. In later times, a hut was built at the far side of the acting area where it formed a background for the actors ……..(7)…….. the parts of the different characters. Eventually, a ……..(8)……..  platform was built so that the actors could be seen more clearly. This was the first appearance of anything  ……..(9)…….. our modern stage. As well as these permanent theatres, there were simple wooden stages ………(10)…….. around by actors wandering from one place to another. There was also a hut with curtains that served both as background scenery and as a dressing room.

1.      A. scene                      B. performance           C. scenery                   D. stage

2.      A. Whole                     B. Complete                C. Full                                    D. All

3.      A. In                            B. For                         C. At                           D. On

4.      A. chairs                     B. benches                  C. seats                       D. stools

5.      A. watchers                 B. players                    C. viewers                   D. audiences

6.      A. among                    B. between                  C. around                   D. behind

7.      A. playing                   B. making                   C. doing                      D. being

8.      A. lifted                       B. raised                     C. moved                     D. pulled

9.      A. as                            B. like                         C. equal                      D. similar

10.      A. carried                    B. held                                    C. brought                  D. fetched

Part 3: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points)

A POP STAR

               John Lennon was (0)born inLiverpool in 1940. He was always (1)……………………………on music and played in  a pop group (2) …………………………………. school and Art college .

John (3)……………………………. married to Cynthia in 1962 and they had a son (4)…………………………. name was Julian. At that time, John was a member of a group (5)…………………………..“ The Beatles” . Many beautiful songs (6) ……………………………. written by John and wherever  the group went, crowds of fans gathered to see them . They (7)……………………………… scream and faint when “ The Beatles” played and lots of people have their hair cut in a Beatles style. Soon, everyone had  heard (8)………………………………. “The Beatles” and  John was (9)………………………… richer than he had ever thought.

Having achieved world-wide success, John started to make records (10)…………………………… his own after 1968 , and it was in the same year when (11)……………………………… marriage to Cynthia came to an end. He had met Yoko Ono (12)…………………….. he married the following year. John lost weight and grew his hair long , as  can (13) ………………………….. seen on the covers of the records that he made with Yoko. He set up home in theUnited States  and had a son called Sean.

Many people considered John Lennon to be (14) …………………………. most talented of all “The Beatles”. He sang about peace and love and so when he was murdered  by one of his fans, outside hisNew Yorkapartment , the whole world (15)……………………………… shocked . More than 50,000 fans turned up to a ceremony in his memory. He was only forty when he died.

III. WRITING: ( 30 points)

 Part 1: There is a mistake in each sentence below. Underline the mistake and write the correct sentence. (10 points)

EX: I am reading a book which it is very interesting.

→   I am reading a book which is very interesting.

 

1.   My mother, that is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.

……………………………………………………………………………….………………………..

2.   Andrew has been a teacher of English since a very long time.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….……

3.   It is not easy to grow up children in a modern world.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…

4.   I think we should go some sightseeing this afternoon.

……………………………………………………………………………….……………………….

5.   The room where I am staying in is very noisy.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

6.   This is Peter, who his sister works at your school.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7.   Do you want to see the pictures that we took them on holiday?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

8.   Have you ever considered to become a professional footballer?

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

9.   I’ll give Tania your letter if she will come to school tomorrow.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. I’ve really got to cut up smoking.

……………………………………………………………………………………….………….….

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence using the word given. Do not change the word given. ( 10 points)

 

1. Could you possibly help me with this box?                                                            mind

Would …………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. “Who ate the cake?” she asked.                                                                             had

She wanted…………………………………………………………………….…………………..

3. What sort of weather did you have on holiday?                                                  like

What ……………………………………………………………………….……………………..

4. I am not good at skiing, but I’d like to learn.                                                                  not

I do…………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The exam wasn’t as hard as I expected.                                                                than 

The exam…………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Don’t forget to contact me if you come to London.                                           touch

Don’t forget to………………………………………………………………………………..

7. Make sure that you don’t arrive late.                                                               turn

Make sure that………………………………………………………………………………..

8. Your English will improve if you keep practising.                                              get

Your English…………………………………………………………………………………..

9. Normally I have a ten-minute journey to school.                                                     me

Normally…………………………………………………………………………………………

10. She is keen on meeting people from other countries.                                             who

She wants…………………………………………………………………………………….….

Part 3: In about 250 words, write about the advantages and disadvantages of a child in a large family. (10 points)

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……. The end …………

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

     THỪA THIÊN HUẾ                               MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2007-2008                                                                             

      ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC                                                   Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút

 

——————————————————————————————————————

                                                                        

                                                               HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

 

I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 points)

Part 1: 15 points: one point for each correct answer

Q

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Key

B

A

D

D

A

B

A

C

C

D

C

A

C

D

B

 

Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

1. was talking – saw

2. is being considered

3. has been used

4. have lost – have been looking for/have looked for– did – found

5. had – would go

Part 3: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

1. failed            2.won                           3. nobody/ no one                    4. lend              5. earns/gets

6. take  7. near/close                 8. countryside/ country  9.sleepy            10. prevent/stop

II. READING COMPREHENSION (35 points)

Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

1. interview                   2. applicants                 3. reference                  4. contract                    5. training

6. career                       7. promotion     8. redundant                 9. pension                     10. retired

 

Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

Q

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

Key

B

D

C

C

D

D

A

B

B

A

 

Part 3: 15 points: one point for each correct answer

1. keen / hooked                2. at                          3. got                  4. whose                5. called

6. were                               7. would                    8. of/about           9. much /far            10. on

11. his                                12. whom                  13. be                 14. the                    15. was

III. WRITING (30 points)

Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

1.   My mother, who is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.

2.   Andrew has been a teacher of English for a very long time.

3.   It is not easy to bring up children in a modern world.

4.   I think we should do some sightseeing/ go sightseeing this afternoon.

5.   The room where I am staying is very noisy./ which I am staying in

6.   This is Peter, whose sister works at your school.

7.   Do you want to see the pictures that we took on holiday?

8.   Have you ever considered becoming a professional footballer?

9.   I’ll give Tania your letter if she comes to school tomorrow.

10. I’ve really got to cut down on/ give up smoking.

Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

1. Would you mind helping me with this box?

2. She wanted to know who had eaten the cake.

3. What was the weather like on your holiday/when you were on holiday?

4. I do not ski very well, but I’d like to learn.

5. The exam was easier than I expected.

6. Do not forget to get/keep in touch with me if you come toLondon.

7. Make sure that you turn up in (good) time.

8. Your English will get better if you keep practising.

9. Normally it takes me 10 minutes to get to school.

10. She wants to meet people who are /come from other countries.

Part 3: 10 points

Total: 100 points

UBND tỈnh vŨng tÀu

SỞ GiÁo dỤc – ĐÀo TẠo

Đề chính thức

 

 

 

Ky thi tuyỂn sinh vÀo lỚp 10 thpt chuyÊn

Năm học 2009 – 2010

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

Thời gian: 120 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề )

Ngày thi:  25/ 6/ 2009

A. pronunciation (10 points).

 

 

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each group. (5 points)

  1. A. author
B. other C. there D. they
  1. A. forest
B. control C. product D. ecology
  1. A. industry
B. translate C. construction D. satisfy
  1. A. baggage
B. courage C. damage D. invasion
  1. A. advantage
B. addition C. advertise D. adventure

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)

A. deposit B. festival C. institute D. resident
A. surprising B. astonishing C. amazing D. interesting
A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult
A. extreme B. generous C. lonely D. clothing
A. friendly B. extra C. along D. orphanage

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points).

I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)

1.  One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs.

     A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive

2.  I was ________ in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.

A. submerged B. distracted C. gripped D. engrossed

3.  If we hurry, we might get there ________ to catch the early train.

     A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time

4.  To get a passport, you must send in your birth  ________ and two photos.

     A. certificate B. licence C. paper D. card

5.  She tries to set  ________ an hour a week for practice.

     A. about B. down C. aside D. in

6.  ________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.

     A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole

7.  Robert and his wife  ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening.

     A. came round B. came about C. came down D. came away

8.  Each of the guests  ________ a bunch of flowers.

     A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give

9.  To everyone’s surprise, Mr Brown  ________ at the Trade Union meeting.

     A. turned in B. turned over C. turned up D. turned round

10. Everyone burst out laughing. There was a lot of  ________.

    A. laughs B. laughter C. laughings D. laugh

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)

  1. I (meet) ________ John before I (be) ________ a fortnight inParis.
  2. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (go) ________ out and they (sit) ________ in the dark.
  3. What tune (play) ________ when we (come) ________ in?
  4. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (wear) ________ her seat belt, she (not hurt) ________ so badly.
  5. Coming into the room he (see) ________ Mary where he (leave) ________ her.

III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)

  1. We go to the restaurant for ________ whenever we ‘re tired of eating meat. (vegestable)
  2. Don’t worry. I ‘ll be waiting for you at the ________  to the pagoda . (enter)
  3. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ________. (modern)
  4. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ________ of the newspaper. (come)
  5. What is the ________ of the adjective “solid”. ( oppose)
  6. ________ should complain if they are not satisfied with the service they recieve. (Consume)
  7. If your work is ________ you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)
  8. ________ are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforest are being destroyed.(Conserve)
  9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ________. (sport)

10. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ________. (predict)

IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).

  1. As they built bigger and bigger ships, they were able to sail further and further away.
  2. They don’t really mean that the world is getting smaller, of course.
  3. They found that as they sailed further away from their home countries, the world became bigger.
  4. Then men began to use ships to explore the world.
  5. Today there are no undiscovered countries left to put on the map, but there are many new worlds to discover out in space.
  6. But 2,300 years ago the Egyptians and the Greek thought that the world was very small and flat that around it was the  ocean.
  7. We often hear people  saying that the world is getting smaller.
  8. So they had to make new maps to show the countries that they found.
  9. And they discovered new countries that they didn’t know about.
  10. What they mean is that with modern means of transport, we can now reach every part of the world very quickly.

C. READING (30 points).

I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)

People have been playing with marbles for thousands of years. The first marbles were probably either river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely, rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. Such very old clay marbles have been found in both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C. Harder and more durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay marbles, which crack very easily. So with the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles made of agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and marble play flowered. Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern part ofGermany. Shortly after, handmade glass marbles appeared in the same part ofEurope. For the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundred of games – flourished in both Europe andAmerica. Marble players developed their own vocabulary for different sizes and materials of marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played and the way marbles were used in the games. For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the most popular and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie.

1. The author makes the point in the passage that playing with marbles  __________.

A. has been going on since ancient times

B. is a relatively recent phenomenonC. is losing popularity

D. is a very expensive pastime

2. According to the passage, which of the following was the least used substance for making marbles?

A. agate B. glass C. rock D. clay

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of marbles became very popular in Europe andAmerica__________.

A. in the 18th century

B. in the 1970sC. in 6000 B.C

D. after glass marbles were developed

4. We can infer from the passage that marble playing __________.

A. is a game only for children

B. has many variations in gamesC. is played according to one set of rules

D. uses only one kind of marble

5. We can conclude from lines 11-12 of the passage that the terminology of marble playing is __________.

A. specialized

B. used only by childrenC. easy to understand

D. derived from an ancient language

II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)

Look on the bright side

Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (1) _______ to be successful? Having some one around who always (2) _______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) _______ we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says,b “It looks (4) _______ rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) _______ it. You can change your view of life, (6) _______ to psychologists, it only takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (7) _______ . Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) _______ . Optimists are more (9) _______ to start new projects and generally more prepared to take risks.

Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) _______ to the world. Some people are brought up to (11) _______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) _______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) _______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) _______ failure as the end of the world-they just (15) _______ with their lives.

  1. A. counted
B. expected C. felt D. waited
  1. A. worries
B. cares C. fears D. doubts
  1. A. musement
B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
  1. A. so
B. to C. for D. like
  1. A. with
B. against C. about D. over
  1. A. judging
B. according C. concerning D. following
  1. A. result
B. reason C. purpose D. product
  1. A. supply
B. suggest C. offer D. propose
  1. A. possible
B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over

III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)

Travelling to all corners of the world is (1) _______ easier and easier. We live (2) _______ a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (3) _______ simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at  4 p.m . What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they ‘ll be exactly (4) _______ time. If they are American, they ‘ll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are Bristish, they be 15 minutes (5) _______, and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small  advice in (6) _______ not to behave badly abroad. InFranceyou shouldn’t sit down in a cafard untill you are shaken hands with everyone you know.InAfghanistanyou ‘d  better spend at last 5 minutes (7) _______ hello.  In Pakistanyou mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In theMiddle East  you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (8) _______ in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you.InRussiayou must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. InThailandyou should clasp your hands (9) _______ and lower your head and your eyes when you  greet  someone. InAmericayou should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (10) _______. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation  until it is eaten.

D. WRITING (20 points).

I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before them. (10 points)

  1. My brother studies now harder than he used to.

My brother ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. Please don’t ask me that question.

I’d rather ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. I last saw Bob when I was inHo Chi Minh City.

I haven’t …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. John only understood very little what the teacher said.

John could hardly ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. Tom will be twenty next week.

It’s Tom’s ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. She is fond of her nephew although he behaves terribly.

She is fond of her nephew in …………………………………………………………………………………….

  1. He prefers reading books to watching TV.

He would ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

  1. He didn’t hurry, so he missed the bus.

If …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. The train takes longer than the plane.

The plane ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. I don’t suppose you have change for 2 pounds, do you?

Do you happen ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)

Dear Sir / Madam,

  1. I / like / express / concern / increasing number / karaoke bars / city.
  2. There be / lot / reason / I object / places.
  3. Firstly, / owners / take / much money / those / come / sing.
  4. Secondly, / they cause / much noise / neighborhood.
  5. Thirdly, / there / number / pupils / play truant / just / go / those places / sing.
  6. Last / least / these bars / do harm / appearance / city / because / their / ugly flashing lights.
  7. I want / say / I / not / old fashioned person.
  8. I hope / authority / take / matter / careful consideration.
  9. I / not mean / ban them / but / there should / effective way / control / this kind / entertainment places.

10. I / look / see / city council / do / this master.

Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.

 

———- The end ———-

(Đề thi này có 04  trang)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ………

UBND tỈnh vŨng tÀu

SỞ GiÁo dỤc – ĐÀo TẠo

Đề chính thức

 

 

 

ĐÁP ÁN tuyỂn sinh vÀo lỚp 10 thpt chuyÊn

Năm học 2009 – 2010

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

Ngày thi:  25/ 6/ 2009

A. pronunciation (10 points).

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each group. (5 points) – 1/ each.

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5.   C

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points) – 1/ each.

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5.   C

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points).

I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence (10 points) – 1/ each.

1.   C 2.   D 3.   B 4.   A 5.   C
6.   B 7.   A 8.   B 9.   C 10. B

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points) – 1/ each.

  1. met – had been.
  2. had gone – were sitting.
  3. was being played – came.
  4. had been wearing – wouldn’t have been hurt.
  5. saw – had left.

III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage (10 points) – 1/ each.

  1. vegetarians
  2. consumers
  3. entrance
7.  untisfactory
  1. modernized
8.  Conservationists
  1. incomes
9.  sportsmanship
  1. opposite
10.unpredictable

IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).

g  b  j    f   d  c  i   a   h    e .

C. READING (30 points).

I. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question (5 points) – 1/ each.

1. A 2. D  3. D  4. B 5. A

II. Read the text and decide which answer best fits each space (15 points) - 1/ each.

1.     B 2.     C 3.     D 4.     D 5.   C
6.     B 7.     A 8.     C 9.     B 10. B
11.   C 12.   A 13.   C 14.   A 15. B

II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage (10 points) – 1/ each.

  1. getting   2.  in   3. a   4. on   5.    late
  6. order   7.  saying   8. anything   9. togethet   10.  possible

 

 

 

 

D. WRITING (20 points).

I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before them. (10 points)

  1. My brother didn’t use to study as/ so hard as he does now/ used to study more lazily than he does now.
  2. I’d rather you didn’t ask me that question.
  3. I haven’t seen Bob since I was inHo Chi Minh City.
  4. John could hardly understand what the teacher said.
  5. It’s Tom’s twentieth birthday next week.
  6. She is fond of her nephew in spite of his terrible behaviour.
  7. He would rather read books than watch TV.
  8. If he had hurried he would/could have caught / wouldn’t have missed the bus
  9. The plane does not take as long as/takes a shorter time than/ is quicker/faster than the train.

10. Do you happen to have change for 2 pounds?

II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete … (10 points) – 1/ each.

Dear Sir/ Madam,

  1. I would like to express (my) concern about the increasing number of karaoke bars in the/ our city.
  2. There are a lot of reasons that/ why I object to these/ those places.
  3. Firstly, the owners take too much money from those people who come to sing.
  4. Secondly, they cause/ are causing too much noise in/ to the neighborhood.
  5. Thirdly, there are a number of pupils who/ that play truant just to go to those places to sing.
  6. Last but not least, these bars do harm to the appearance of the city because of their ugly flashing light.
  7. I (also) want to say (that) I am not an old fashioned person.
  8. I hope (that) the authority will take this matter into careful consideration.
  9.  I do not mean to ban them, but there should be an/ some effective way to control this kind of entertainment places.

10. I look/ am looking forward to seeing the city council doing something about this matter.
Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.

  • Tổng điểm bài thi : Tổng số câu đúng/ 10.

        4 ĐỀ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH:

     BẮC NINH, THỪA THIÊN HUẾ, VŨNG TÀU

     

     


    UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH

    ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

    SỞ GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO

    ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

    Năm học 2009-2010

    MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

    Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề);

    Ngày thi: 09/07/2009

         A.  PHONETICS (10 POINTS)

    I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differentlyfrom the others in each group.  (5 points)

    1. A. climate                         B. comic                     C. hike                        D. website
    2. A. worked             B. laughed                  C. hoped                     D. naked
    3. A. cover                         B. category               C. ancient                       D. decorate
    4. A. erupt                          B. humor                  C. UFO                D. communicate
    5. A. Buddhish                   B. bomb                   C. viable               D. bulb

    II. Choose the word ( A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)

    1. A. comprise                     B. depend                 C. design                        D. novel

    2. A. tropical                       B. collection             C. tendency                   D. charity

    3. A. friendliness                 B. occasion               C. pagoda                      D. deposit

    4. A. importing                    B. specific                C . impolite                   D. important

    5. A. federation                    B. unpolluted           C. disappearing        D. profitable

    B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)

     

    I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)

    1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?

    A. Can you pass the sugar please?             B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.

    C. The apples are good for you.                D. I love the skiing.

    2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.

    A. for                    B. since                        C. in                                D. about

    3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.

    A. from                 B. than                         C. to                                 D. or

    4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.

    A. won’t make      B. don’t make              C. wouldn’t make            D. didn’t make

    5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.

    A. goes                  B. was going                C. went                           D. has gone

    6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.

    A. we are followed                                     B. we are being followed

    C. we are being following                          D. we are following

    7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?

    A. You should get a hair- cut.                     B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.

    C. You ought to get a hair- cut.                   D. You really must get a hair- cut.

    8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary?

    A. Will                    B. Do                           C. Can                            D. Did

    9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.

    A. that                     B. whose                      C. Who                           D. whom

    10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.

    A. get rid of            B. got rid of                  C. got rid                       D. getting rid of

    II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 points)

    1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.

    2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.

    3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet yesterday?

    4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.

    5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.

    III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points)

     

    1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)

    2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)

    3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)

    4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of_____. ( pollute)

    5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. ( collect)

    6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)

    7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they sell. (cry)

    8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)

    9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)

    10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)

    IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)

    1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.

    A                                         B           C                 D

    2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.

    A                                                                         B      C        D

    3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for

    A                                                                                                                       B

    students to practice speaking words.

    C                   D

    4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.

    A       B                       C                D

    5. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that he work as fastly as possible.

    A    B            C             D

                C. READING  (30 POINTS)

    I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)

                                                    BENJAMIN FRANKLIN

    Few people can embody the spirit of earlyAmericaas much as Benjamin Franklin. He lived through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and dying ten years before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from tiny settlements into a nation, and he also contributed much to the development of the new state.

    At the age of 17Franklinran away toPhiladelphia. He had already received some training as a printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first publication, the Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government printing work, which helped him to rise from his poor background to become a successful entrepreneur. Some of his experience in business was shared in his famous Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his reputation throughout the American colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which was written toward the end of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.

    He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with electricity and lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also interested in improving the conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number of projects in his nativePhiladelphia, including the setting up of a library, a university, a philosophical society, and–because he was a pragmatic man–a fire prevention service. In 1753 he became Postmaster–General of the colonies. Through this experience he began to develop the idea that the colonies ofNorth Americashould be a single nation. Later, he went toLondonto try to persuade the British government to change the conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American colonists into rebellion.

    Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American states, he worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador toFrance, he encouraged the French to help George Washington. After the war he attended the American constitutional congress. This was his last contribution, for he died later that year. He is still fondly remembered by Americans as one of the creators of theUnited States.

    1. What is a good description for this text?

    A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin.   B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.

    C. The works of Benjamin Franklin.               D.Franklinand AmericanIndependence.

    2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?

    A. 1806                          B. 1794                    C. 1717                           D. 1706

    3. Which of these happened first?

    A. Franklin trains as a painter.                       B. Franklin runs away toPhiladelphia.

    C. the American colonies rebel                      D. Franklin starts his first publication.

    4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?

    A. Franklin’s reputation.                                B. How to succeed in business.

    C. how to do government printing.                D. The text does not say.

    5. In which countries did Franklin live?

    A.EnglandandFrance.                                   B.PhiladelphiaandEngland.

    C.LondonandAmerica.                                 D.England,AmericaandFrance.

    II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)

     

    SAVING THE TIGER.

    In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and __(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a campaign __(3)___ save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into a desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there ____(7)__ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back to nature.

    Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to hide in, and There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many ___(12)____ deer and monkeys than before. The people __(13)__ were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new villages away __(14)___ the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer.

    D. WRITING (25 POINTS)

    I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)

    1. You should review your lessons for the exam.

    It’s time____________________________________________________________

    2.That man used to work with me when I lived inNew York.

    That’s ____________________________________________________________

    3.What a pity they close the shops at lunch- time.

    I wished ____________________________________________________________

    4. We like ice- cream but we don’t have it every day.

    Although ___________________________________________________________

    5.When did you start working in that factory?

    How long ___________________________________________________________

    1. Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach.

    The sand ___________________________________________________________

    7. “ Where’ s the station car- park?” Mrs. Smith asked.

    Mrs. Smith asked ____________________________________________________

    8. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.

    He regretted _________________________________________________________               9. I advise you not to buy that car.

    If _________________________________________________________________               10. Why don’t you ask her yourself?

    I suggest that _______________________________________________________

    II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points)

    1. If you/ not go/ the party/ I / go/ either.
    2. Unless/  I/ have/ quiet room/ I/ not/ able/ do/ work.
    3. nurse/ kind enough/ help him/ walk.
    4. He/ rather spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.
    5. I/ return/ visit/Japan. It/ wonderful trip.

    THE END

    ề thi gồm 04 trang)

    Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………….. Số báo danh: ……………..

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Đáp án chuyên 10 (2009-2010)

     

    1. A.     PHONETICS(10pts)

    I. Choose the word in each that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others in each group.(5pts) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B

     

    II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.(5pts)

    ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D
    1. B.    VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR(35pts)

     

    1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B

    I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.(10pt)s( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

     

    II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10pts)

    (( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. made -  to pay                               3. came – was rolling
    2. had he taken – rang                       4. will be – writes                        5. being asked – to wait

     

    III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence.(10pts)

    ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ, nếu viết đượcc từ nhưng thiếu “s” thì từ đó vẫn không được tính điểm)

    1. imagination 2. products 3. uneconomical

    uneconomic4. pollution5. collections6. Deforestation7. Criers8. consumption9. disappearance

    re – appearance10. upbringing

     

    IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten.(5pt) (mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C

     

                C. READING  (30PTS)

    I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer.(15pts) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 3đ)

    1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D

    II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0)    (15pts) (( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. the 2.  up 3. to 4.so 5. that/which
    6. since/as/ because/for 7. were 8. might/could 9. enough 10. least
    11. in 12. more 13. who/ that 14. from 15. a
    1. C.    WRITING (25pts)

    I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase.(20pts( mỗi câu viết đúng được 2đ)

    1. (It’s time) you reviewed your lessons for the exam.
    2. (That’s) the man who used to work with me when I lived inNew York.
    3. (I wish) they would open the shops at lunch time/ Or. (I wished) they wouldn’t close the shops at lunch time.
    4. (Although) we like ice- cream, we don’t have it everyday.
    5. (How long) have you been working in that factory?
    6. ( The sand) of the beach was being slowly covered by oil.
    7. ( Mrs. Smith asked) (me) where the station car-park was.
    8. (He regretted) not saying/ having said goodbye to her at the airport.
    9. (If I) were you, I wouldn’t by that car.
    10. (I suggest that) you (should) ask her yourself.

     

    II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points) ( mỗi câu viết đúng được 1đ)

    1. If you don’t go to the party, I won’t go either.
    2. Unless I have a quiet room, I will not/ won’t be able to do my homework/ any work.
    3. The nurse is /was kind enough to help him (to) walk.
    4. He would rather spend his holidays on a farm than at the seaside.
    5. I have (just) returned from a visit toJapan. It was a wonderful trip.

                    Tổng số điểm 100.

    Sau khi chấm giám khảo quy về thang điểm 10.

    Cách làm tròn điểm; ( ví dụ)                   7,1  7,0

    7,2; 7,3  7,25

    7,4; 7,6  7,5

    7,7; 7,8  7,75

    7,9  8,0

     

    SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

         THỪA THIÊN HUẾ                                     MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2007-2008                                                                       

          ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC                                                   Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút

                                                          (Đề thi gồm có 6 trang – Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi này)

    ———————————————————————————————————————————–

    Tổng điểm:

    Giám khảo 1:

    Giám khảo 2:

    Mã phách:

    I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY ( 35 points)

                Part 1: Choose the best answer among A,B,C or D. (15 points)

    1. My mother used to ………. research in this library when she was a student.

    A. make                       B. do                            C. making                                 D. doing

    2. Let’s go to the beach this weekend,  ………… ?

    A shall we                    B. do we                      C. don’t we                              D. will we

    3. I wish he ……….. that.

    A. doesn’t say              B. didn’t say                 C. hasn’t said                           D. hadn’t said

    4. My father has gone away. He’ll be back ……… a week.

    A. for                           B. at                             C. until             D. in

    5. Don’t do this all at once; Do it little ……………….. little.

    A. by                            B. to                             C. from                                    D. with

    6. They are both good …………. because they type carefully.

    A. typewriters               B. typists                      C. typers                                  D. typemen

    7. We didn’t ……………to the station in time to catch the train.

    A. get                           B. reach                       C. arrive                                   D. approach

    8. I don’t think that purple shirt  ………….. with your yellow skirt.

    A. suits             B. fits                           C. goes                                    D. wears

    9. We had to stop for gasoline at a filling …………… .

    A. garage                     B. service                     C. station                                  D. pump

    10. ……………. you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.

    A. If                             B. Although                  C. Despite                                D. Unless

    11. He ordered them …….. it again.

    A. don’t do                  B. not do                      C. not to do                              D. didn’t do

    12. Quite soon, the world is going to …………………. energy resources.

    A. run out of                 B. get into                     C. keep up with                        D. come up again

    13. We decided not to go camping because of the ………rain.

    A. great                        B. strong                      C. heavy                                   D. extra

    14. Mary works at a supermarket. She ………. $ 5 an hour.

    A. pays                        B. brings                       C. takes                                   D. earns

    15. The students have got  ……….. news about their exams.

    A. many                       B. some                        C. few                                      D. a few

    Part 2: Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tense or form. (10 points)

    1. Quang …………………………………..  (talk) to another student when I ……………………………..  (see)    him today.

    2. That proposal   ………………………………….( consider) by the members right now.

    3. Less than half of the cans of paint   ………………………………..(use) up to now.

    4. A: I  …………………………… (lose) my glasses. I can’t find them anywhere. I  ……………………………  (look for) them for hours.

    B: Don’t worry. I  ……………………………(do) the same thing the other week but I ……………………..    (find) them a few days later.

    5. He is working tomorrow. If he   ……………………………(have) a day off tomorrow, he ………………..

    (go) to the beach.

    .           Part 3: Correct the words in bold. (10 points)

                Ex: Jane did a lot of mistakes in her composition.                                                                …..made…………

    1. I’m afraid you’ve lost your test. You only got 23%.                                               ……………………

    2. Congratulations! You’ve gained first prize in the competitions!                   ……………………

    3. I’ve asked everyone where Jane is, but none can tell me.                           ……………………

    4. I’m a bit short of cash. Can you borrow me some until tomorrow?              ……………………

    5. Gills has got a good job and wins a good salary.                                        ……………………

    6. Do you mind if I make a photograph of you?                                                         ……………………

    7. Our school is nearby to the town centre.                                                   ……………………

    8. It’s so peaceful living in the nature away from the city.                                           ……………………

    9. I feel asleep. Do you mind if I go to bed?                                                  ……………………

    10. My mother tried to avoid me from going to the club.                                       .…………………..

    .

    II. READING COMPREHENSION ( 35 points)

    Part 1: Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text. (10 points)

                                 retire, promote, redundant, interview, contract, reference,

                                          pensioner, applicant, career, train, employment

    ADVICE TO YOUNG PEOPLE ABOUT TO START WORK

    In these days of high (0) unemployment, it is often difficult for young people to find a job. If they are lucky enough to be asked to go for a(n) (1)…………………….………… , they may find that there are at least 20 other (2) ………………………..……for the job. If a company is thinking of offering you a job, they will ask you for at least one (3) ………………………….……from either your previous employer or someone who knows you well. Before taking up your job, you may have to sign a (4) …………………………. You will probably have to do some (5) ………………………… , which help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided that this is your chosen (6)…………………………, you will then have to work hard to try and get (7) …………………………, which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may be made (8)…………………………, and not be able to find another job. It is also a good idea to pay some money into a (9) …………………………scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family when you are (10) …………………………. Finally, good luck!

    Part 2: Read the passage below and choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D (10 points)

    GREEK THEATRES

    The word theatre comes from Greek and literally means seeing place. The theatre has been popular in ancient times. People did not go to the theatre simply to see an interesting ……..(1)…….. for the plays formed part of religious festivals. ……..(2)…….. early Greek theatres consisted of no more than a flat space with an altar at the foot of a hillside. ……..(3)…….. that time, there were no……..(4)…….. as there are in modern theatres, so the ……..(5)…….. stood or sat on the slopes of the hillside. Gradually, special theatres were made by building large stone or wooden steps one ……..(6)…….. another up the hillside. In later times, a hut was built at the far side of the acting area where it formed a background for the actors ……..(7)…….. the parts of the different characters. Eventually, a ……..(8)……..  platform was built so that the actors could be seen more clearly. This was the first appearance of anything  ……..(9)…….. our modern stage. As well as these permanent theatres, there were simple wooden stages ………(10)…….. around by actors wandering from one place to another. There was also a hut with curtains that served both as background scenery and as a dressing room.

    1.      A. scene                      B. performance           C. scenery                   D. stage

    2.      A. Whole                     B. Complete                C. Full                                    D. All

    3.      A. In                            B. For                         C. At                           D. On

    4.      A. chairs                     B. benches                  C. seats                       D. stools

    5.      A. watchers                 B. players                    C. viewers                   D. audiences

    6.      A. among                    B. between                  C. around                   D. behind

    7.      A. playing                   B. making                   C. doing                      D. being

    8.      A. lifted                       B. raised                     C. moved                     D. pulled

    9.      A. as                            B. like                         C. equal                      D. similar

    10.      A. carried                    B. held                                    C. brought                  D. fetched

    Part 3: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points)

    A POP STAR

                   John Lennon was (0)born inLiverpool in 1940. He was always (1)……………………………on music and played in  a pop group (2) …………………………………. school and Art college .

    John (3)……………………………. married to Cynthia in 1962 and they had a son (4)…………………………. name was Julian. At that time, John was a member of a group (5)…………………………..“ The Beatles” . Many beautiful songs (6) ……………………………. written by John and wherever  the group went, crowds of fans gathered to see them . They (7)……………………………… scream and faint when “ The Beatles” played and lots of people have their hair cut in a Beatles style. Soon, everyone had  heard (8)………………………………. “The Beatles” and  John was (9)………………………… richer than he had ever thought.

    Having achieved world-wide success, John started to make records (10)…………………………… his own after 1968 , and it was in the same year when (11)……………………………… marriage to Cynthia came to an end. He had met Yoko Ono (12)…………………….. he married the following year. John lost weight and grew his hair long , as  can (13) ………………………….. seen on the covers of the records that he made with Yoko. He set up home in theUnited States  and had a son called Sean.

    Many people considered John Lennon to be (14) …………………………. most talented of all “The Beatles”. He sang about peace and love and so when he was murdered  by one of his fans, outside hisNew Yorkapartment , the whole world (15)……………………………… shocked . More than 50,000 fans turned up to a ceremony in his memory. He was only forty when he died.

    III. WRITING: ( 30 points)

     Part 1: There is a mistake in each sentence below. Underline the mistake and write the correct sentence. (10 points)

    EX: I am reading a book which it is very interesting.

    →   I am reading a book which is very interesting.

     

    1.   My mother, that is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.

    ……………………………………………………………………………….………………………..

    2.   Andrew has been a teacher of English since a very long time.

    …………………………………………………………………………………………………….……

    3.   It is not easy to grow up children in a modern world.

    ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…

    4.   I think we should go some sightseeing this afternoon.

    ……………………………………………………………………………….……………………….

    5.   The room where I am staying in is very noisy.

    ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

    6.   This is Peter, who his sister works at your school.

    …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    7.   Do you want to see the pictures that we took them on holiday?

    ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

    8.   Have you ever considered to become a professional footballer?

    ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

    9.   I’ll give Tania your letter if she will come to school tomorrow.

    …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    10. I’ve really got to cut up smoking.

    ……………………………………………………………………………………….………….….

    Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence using the word given. Do not change the word given. ( 10 points)

     

    1. Could you possibly help me with this box?                                                            mind

    Would …………………………………………………………………………………………….

    2. “Who ate the cake?” she asked.                                                                             had

    She wanted…………………………………………………………………….…………………..

    3. What sort of weather did you have on holiday?                                                  like

    What ……………………………………………………………………….……………………..

    4. I am not good at skiing, but I’d like to learn.                                                                  not

    I do…………………………………………………………………………………………………

    5. The exam wasn’t as hard as I expected.                                                                than 

    The exam…………………………………………………………………………………………

    6. Don’t forget to contact me if you come to London.                                           touch

    Don’t forget to………………………………………………………………………………..

    7. Make sure that you don’t arrive late.                                                               turn

    Make sure that………………………………………………………………………………..

    8. Your English will improve if you keep practising.                                              get

    Your English…………………………………………………………………………………..

    9. Normally I have a ten-minute journey to school.                                                     me

    Normally…………………………………………………………………………………………

    10. She is keen on meeting people from other countries.                                             who

    She wants…………………………………………………………………………………….….

    Part 3: In about 250 words, write about the advantages and disadvantages of a child in a large family. (10 points)

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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    ……. The end …………

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO    KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

         THỪA THIÊN HUẾ                               MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2007-2008                                                                             

          ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC                                                   Thời gian làm bài : 150 phút

     

    ——————————————————————————————————————

                                                                            

                                                                   HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

     

    I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 points)

    Part 1: 15 points: one point for each correct answer

    Q

    1

    2

    3

    4

    5

    6

    7

    8

    9

    10

    11

    12

    13

    14

    15

    Key

    B

    A

    D

    D

    A

    B

    A

    C

    C

    D

    C

    A

    C

    D

    B

     

    Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    1. was talking – saw

    2. is being considered

    3. has been used

    4. have lost – have been looking for/have looked for– did – found

    5. had – would go

    Part 3: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    1. failed            2.won                           3. nobody/ no one                    4. lend              5. earns/gets

    6. take  7. near/close                 8. countryside/ country  9.sleepy            10. prevent/stop

    II. READING COMPREHENSION (35 points)

    Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    1. interview                   2. applicants                 3. reference                  4. contract                    5. training

    6. career                       7. promotion     8. redundant                 9. pension                     10. retired

     

    Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    Q

    1

    2

    3

    4

    5

    6

    7

    8

    9

    10

    Key

    B

    D

    C

    C

    D

    D

    A

    B

    B

    A

     

    Part 3: 15 points: one point for each correct answer

    1. keen / hooked                2. at                          3. got                  4. whose                5. called

    6. were                               7. would                    8. of/about           9. much /far            10. on

    11. his                                12. whom                  13. be                 14. the                    15. was

    III. WRITING (30 points)

    Part 1: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    1.   My mother, who is nearly 60, is coming to live with us.

    2.   Andrew has been a teacher of English for a very long time.

    3.   It is not easy to bring up children in a modern world.

    4.   I think we should do some sightseeing/ go sightseeing this afternoon.

    5.   The room where I am staying is very noisy./ which I am staying in

    6.   This is Peter, whose sister works at your school.

    7.   Do you want to see the pictures that we took on holiday?

    8.   Have you ever considered becoming a professional footballer?

    9.   I’ll give Tania your letter if she comes to school tomorrow.

    10. I’ve really got to cut down on/ give up smoking.

    Part 2: 10 points: one point for each correct answer

    1. Would you mind helping me with this box?

    2. She wanted to know who had eaten the cake.

    3. What was the weather like on your holiday/when you were on holiday?

    4. I do not ski very well, but I’d like to learn.

    5. The exam was easier than I expected.

    6. Do not forget to get/keep in touch with me if you come toLondon.

    7. Make sure that you turn up in (good) time.

    8. Your English will get better if you keep practising.

    9. Normally it takes me 10 minutes to get to school.

    10. She wants to meet people who are /come from other countries.

    Part 3: 10 points

    Total: 100 points

    UBND tỈnh vŨng tÀu

    SỞ GiÁo dỤc – ĐÀo TẠo

    Đề chính thức

     

     

     

    Ky thi tuyỂn sinh vÀo lỚp 10 thpt chuyÊn

    Năm học 2009 – 2010

    Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

    Thời gian: 120 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề )

    Ngày thi:  25/ 6/ 2009

    A. pronunciation (10 points).

     

     

    I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each group. (5 points)

    1. A. author
    B. other C. there D. they
    1. A. forest
    B. control C. product D. ecology
    1. A. industry
    B. translate C. construction D. satisfy
    1. A. baggage
    B. courage C. damage D. invasion
    1. A. advantage
    B. addition C. advertise D. adventure

    II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)

    A. deposit B. festival C. institute D. resident
    A. surprising B. astonishing C. amazing D. interesting
    A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult
    A. extreme B. generous C. lonely D. clothing
    A. friendly B. extra C. along D. orphanage

    B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points).

    I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)

    1.  One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs.

         A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive

    2.  I was ________ in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.

    A. submerged B. distracted C. gripped D. engrossed

    3.  If we hurry, we might get there ________ to catch the early train.

         A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time

    4.  To get a passport, you must send in your birth  ________ and two photos.

         A. certificate B. licence C. paper D. card

    5.  She tries to set  ________ an hour a week for practice.

         A. about B. down C. aside D. in

    6.  ________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.

         A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole

    7.  Robert and his wife  ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening.

         A. came round B. came about C. came down D. came away

    8.  Each of the guests  ________ a bunch of flowers.

         A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give

    9.  To everyone’s surprise, Mr Brown  ________ at the Trade Union meeting.

         A. turned in B. turned over C. turned up D. turned round

    10. Everyone burst out laughing. There was a lot of  ________.

        A. laughs B. laughter C. laughings D. laugh

    II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)

    1. I (meet) ________ John before I (be) ________ a fortnight inParis.
    2. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (go) ________ out and they (sit) ________ in the dark.
    3. What tune (play) ________ when we (come) ________ in?
    4. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (wear) ________ her seat belt, she (not hurt) ________ so badly.
    5. Coming into the room he (see) ________ Mary where he (leave) ________ her.

    III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)

    1. We go to the restaurant for ________ whenever we ‘re tired of eating meat. (vegestable)
    2. Don’t worry. I ‘ll be waiting for you at the ________  to the pagoda . (enter)
    3. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ________. (modern)
    4. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ________ of the newspaper. (come)
    5. What is the ________ of the adjective “solid”. ( oppose)
    6. ________ should complain if they are not satisfied with the service they recieve. (Consume)
    7. If your work is ________ you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)
    8. ________ are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforest are being destroyed.(Conserve)
    9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ________. (sport)

    10. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ________. (predict)

    IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).

    1. As they built bigger and bigger ships, they were able to sail further and further away.
    2. They don’t really mean that the world is getting smaller, of course.
    3. They found that as they sailed further away from their home countries, the world became bigger.
    4. Then men began to use ships to explore the world.
    5. Today there are no undiscovered countries left to put on the map, but there are many new worlds to discover out in space.
    6. But 2,300 years ago the Egyptians and the Greek thought that the world was very small and flat that around it was the  ocean.
    7. We often hear people  saying that the world is getting smaller.
    8. So they had to make new maps to show the countries that they found.
    9. And they discovered new countries that they didn’t know about.
    10. What they mean is that with modern means of transport, we can now reach every part of the world very quickly.

    C. READING (30 points).

    I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)

    People have been playing with marbles for thousands of years. The first marbles were probably either river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely, rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. Such very old clay marbles have been found in both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C. Harder and more durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay marbles, which crack very easily. So with the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles made of agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and marble play flowered. Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern part ofGermany. Shortly after, handmade glass marbles appeared in the same part ofEurope. For the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundred of games – flourished in both Europe andAmerica. Marble players developed their own vocabulary for different sizes and materials of marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played and the way marbles were used in the games. For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the most popular and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie.

    1. The author makes the point in the passage that playing with marbles  __________.

    A. has been going on since ancient times

    B. is a relatively recent phenomenonC. is losing popularity

    D. is a very expensive pastime

    2. According to the passage, which of the following was the least used substance for making marbles?

    A. agate B. glass C. rock D. clay

    3. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of marbles became very popular in Europe andAmerica__________.

    A. in the 18th century

    B. in the 1970sC. in 6000 B.C

    D. after glass marbles were developed

    4. We can infer from the passage that marble playing __________.

    A. is a game only for children

    B. has many variations in gamesC. is played according to one set of rules

    D. uses only one kind of marble

    5. We can conclude from lines 11-12 of the passage that the terminology of marble playing is __________.

    A. specialized

    B. used only by childrenC. easy to understand

    D. derived from an ancient language

    II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)

    Look on the bright side

    Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (1) _______ to be successful? Having some one around who always (2) _______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) _______ we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says,b “It looks (4) _______ rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) _______ it. You can change your view of life, (6) _______ to psychologists, it only takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (7) _______ . Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) _______ . Optimists are more (9) _______ to start new projects and generally more prepared to take risks.

    Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) _______ to the world. Some people are brought up to (11) _______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) _______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) _______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) _______ failure as the end of the world-they just (15) _______ with their lives.

    1. A. counted
    B. expected C. felt D. waited
    1. A. worries
    B. cares C. fears D. doubts
    1. A. musement
    B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
    1. A. so
    B. to C. for D. like
    1. A. with
    B. against C. about D. over
    1. A. judging
    B. according C. concerning D. following
    1. A. result
    B. reason C. purpose D. product
    1. A. supply
    B. suggest C. offer D. propose
    1. A. possible
    B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
    10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
    11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
    12. A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns
    13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
    14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
    15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over

    III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)

    Travelling to all corners of the world is (1) _______ easier and easier. We live (2) _______ a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (3) _______ simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at  4 p.m . What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they ‘ll be exactly (4) _______ time. If they are American, they ‘ll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are Bristish, they be 15 minutes (5) _______, and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small  advice in (6) _______ not to behave badly abroad. InFranceyou shouldn’t sit down in a cafard untill you are shaken hands with everyone you know.InAfghanistanyou ‘d  better spend at last 5 minutes (7) _______ hello.  In Pakistanyou mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In theMiddle East  you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (8) _______ in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you.InRussiayou must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. InThailandyou should clasp your hands (9) _______ and lower your head and your eyes when you  greet  someone. InAmericayou should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (10) _______. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation  until it is eaten.

    D. WRITING (20 points).

    I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before them. (10 points)

    1. My brother studies now harder than he used to.

    My brother ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

    1. Please don’t ask me that question.

    I’d rather ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

    1. I last saw Bob when I was inHo Chi Minh City.

    I haven’t …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    1. John only understood very little what the teacher said.

    John could hardly ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

    1. Tom will be twenty next week.

    It’s Tom’s ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    1. She is fond of her nephew although he behaves terribly.

    She is fond of her nephew in …………………………………………………………………………………….

    1. He prefers reading books to watching TV.

    He would ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    1. He didn’t hurry, so he missed the bus.

    If …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

    1. The train takes longer than the plane.

    The plane ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    10. I don’t suppose you have change for 2 pounds, do you?

    Do you happen ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

    II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)

    Dear Sir / Madam,

    1. I / like / express / concern / increasing number / karaoke bars / city.
    2. There be / lot / reason / I object / places.
    3. Firstly, / owners / take / much money / those / come / sing.
    4. Secondly, / they cause / much noise / neighborhood.
    5. Thirdly, / there / number / pupils / play truant / just / go / those places / sing.
    6. Last / least / these bars / do harm / appearance / city / because / their / ugly flashing lights.
    7. I want / say / I / not / old fashioned person.
    8. I hope / authority / take / matter / careful consideration.
    9. I / not mean / ban them / but / there should / effective way / control / this kind / entertainment places.

    10. I / look / see / city council / do / this master.

    Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.

     

    ———- The end ———-

    (Đề thi này có 04  trang)

    Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ………

    UBND tỈnh vŨng tÀu

    SỞ GiÁo dỤc – ĐÀo TẠo

    Đề chính thức

     

     

     

    ĐÁP ÁN tuyỂn sinh vÀo lỚp 10 thpt chuyÊn

    Năm học 2009 – 2010

    Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)

    Ngày thi:  25/ 6/ 2009

    A. pronunciation (10 points).

    I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each group. (5 points) – 1/ each.

    1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5.   C

    II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points) – 1/ each.

    1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5.   C

    B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points).

    I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence (10 points) – 1/ each.

    1.   C 2.   D 3.   B 4.   A 5.   C
    6.   B 7.   A 8.   B 9.   C 10. B

    II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points) – 1/ each.

    1. met – had been.
    2. had gone – were sitting.
    3. was being played – came.
    4. had been wearing – wouldn’t have been hurt.
    5. saw – had left.

    III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage (10 points) – 1/ each.

    1. vegetarians
    2. consumers
    3. entrance
    7.  untisfactory
    1. modernized
    8.  Conservationists
    1. incomes
    9.  sportsmanship
    1. opposite
    10.unpredictable

    IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).

    g  b  j    f   d  c  i   a   h    e .

    C. READING (30 points).

    I. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question (5 points) – 1/ each.

    1. A 2. D  3. D  4. B 5. A

    II. Read the text and decide which answer best fits each space (15 points) - 1/ each.

    1.     B 2.     C 3.     D 4.     D 5.   C
    6.     B 7.     A 8.     C 9.     B 10. B
    11.   C 12.   A 13.   C 14.   A 15. B

    II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage (10 points) – 1/ each.

      1. getting   2.  in   3. a   4. on   5.    late
      6. order   7.  saying   8. anything   9. togethet   10.  possible

     

     

     

     

    D. WRITING (20 points).

    I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed before them. (10 points)

    1. My brother didn’t use to study as/ so hard as he does now/ used to study more lazily than he does now.
    2. I’d rather you didn’t ask me that question.
    3. I haven’t seen Bob since I was inHo Chi Minh City.
    4. John could hardly understand what the teacher said.
    5. It’s Tom’s twentieth birthday next week.
    6. She is fond of her nephew in spite of his terrible behaviour.
    7. He would rather read books than watch TV.
    8. If he had hurried he would/could have caught / wouldn’t have missed the bus
    9. The plane does not take as long as/takes a shorter time than/ is quicker/faster than the train.

    10. Do you happen to have change for 2 pounds?

    II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete … (10 points) – 1/ each.

    Dear Sir/ Madam,

    1. I would like to express (my) concern about the increasing number of karaoke bars in the/ our city.
    2. There are a lot of reasons that/ why I object to these/ those places.
    3. Firstly, the owners take too much money from those people who come to sing.
    4. Secondly, they cause/ are causing too much noise in/ to the neighborhood.
    5. Thirdly, there are a number of pupils who/ that play truant just to go to those places to sing.
    6. Last but not least, these bars do harm to the appearance of the city because of their ugly flashing light.
    7. I (also) want to say (that) I am not an old fashioned person.
    8. I hope (that) the authority will take this matter into careful consideration.
    9.  I do not mean to ban them, but there should be an/ some effective way to control this kind of entertainment places.

    10. I look/ am looking forward to seeing the city council doing something about this matter.
    Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.

    • Tổng điểm bài thi : Tổng số câu đúng/ 10.

     

     

    THE END

     

 

 

THE END

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